The serpent you refer to is Lucifer. Lucifer is Satan. Lucifer was not Adam's wife. For one, Lucifer is male.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>Through various tranlastions the bible may lost its onriginal meanings andd such. The translator could manipulate the wording until it means something completly different from what the original author might have meant. Also the Chruch has manipulated the bible to say what they want it to say especially in the Middle Ages. Since more than half than the population couldn't read maniplution would have been easy. It is proven that the Chruch removed Adam's first wife from the Bible because they condemed divorce. Adam scorned his first wife(don't remember her name its L something) in favor of Eve. She then turned into the serpent and you know the rest.</STRONG>
Eve was the second human being made. Eve was made from Adam. Adam did not scorn anyone in favor of Eve as there was no one there to scorn. Adam and Eve had been together for an unknown amount of time before the temptation and fall of man.
To be more blunt about it; Since you precieve god as a man, does that mean he can have sexual intercourse with a woman? Since he is a man he must have the correct genetalia, therfore he should be able to reproduce.Originally posted by EMINEM:
<STRONG>
I'm not exactly sure what you mean by your question, Azzy. Can you please re-phrase it?
GO! DUBYA GO!</STRONG>
More to the point, Azeroth, does it matter? It is already known that God can impregnate a woman without having sexual intercourse, so why does it matter if he can even have sexual intercourse, ne?Originally posted by Azeroth:
<STRONG>To be more blunt about it; Since you precieve god as a man, does that mean he can have sexual intercourse with a woman? Since he is a man he must have the correct genetalia, therfore he should be able to reproduce.</STRONG>
This is just for argument sake.Originally posted by Sailor Saturn:
<STRONG>More to the point, Azeroth, does it matter? It is already known that God can impregnate a woman without having sexual intercourse, so why does it matter if he can even have sexual intercourse, ne?
*thinks to herself* Men, always focused on sex.
Here's where you're making a mistake, fable. Jesus addressed God as "father" in Hebrew, not Aramaic. The hebrew word he used(at least once) was "Abba" which is a very familiar way of saying "father," like if you were to call your father "Daddy."Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>@Eminem, I do appreciate the effort--but I was trying (however poorly I phrased it) to get at the specific Aramaic word in the NT used by Jesus to address God as "Father," and what that word might mean.</STRONG>
*points to her last post* My Bible is directly translated from the oldest known manuscripts.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>@SS how can you make a return argument with a bible that has been changed (unless of course you have the original copy)
Word, Biblical scholars do translate from Greek to Russian to Spanish to French to German and finally into English. There is but ONE and only ONE translation that is made, and that is from the original Greek manuscripts/codices and into the specific language selected. There ARE many translations (almost every tongue on the planet) but new translatations are not derived from old translations. Linguists go back to the original sources.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>@MM but over thousands of translations little changes will become bigger and bigger misinterpritations. Besides a slightly different wording could completly change a meaning. Besides you didn't say anything about Adam's first wife. Changes like that by the church happend in the New Testament as well.</STRONG>
No, I am not Catholic, and I've no idea what that has to do with the translation of the Bible I use.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>@SS but it has been translated has it not. Are you catholic? because just if it was translated from greek doesn't mean its the original copy it can still be altered.
Now, that's not true. Why, my wife and I...that is to say, I haven't...well...Originally posted by Sailor Saturn:
<STRONG>*thinks to herself* Men, always focused on sex.
Eminem quoted the Gospel of John. Now, please correct me if I'm wrong, but I was under the impression that the Khabouris Manuscript, which is frequently used for first generation translations of this gospel in recent times, was written in Aramaic. Others claim (perhaps rightly) that John was spoken in Aramaic (since that would have been the language of Jesus in his place and time), then transcribed in Greek, and translated into Aramaic. In either case, I haven't seen any references to Hebrew as the language of the so-called fourth gospel.Originally posted by Sailor Saturn:
<STRONG>Here's where you're making a mistake, fable. Jesus addressed God as "father" in Hebrew, not Aramaic. The hebrew word he used(at least once) was "Abba" which is a very familiar way of saying "father," like if you were to call your father "Daddy."
</STRONG>
Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>Eminem quoted the Gospel of John. Now, please correct me if I'm wrong, but I was under the impression that the Khabouris Manuscript, which is sometimes used for first generation translations of this gospel in recent times, was written in Aramaic. Others claim (perhaps rightly) that John was spoken in Aramaic (since that would have been the language of Jesus in his place and time), then transcribed in Greek, and translated into Aramaic. In either case, I haven't seen any references to Hebrew as the language of the so-called fourth gospel.</STRONG>
Well said Fable. See guys can go for a long time without thinking about sex *flips a page in playboy*Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>Now, that's not true. Why, my wife and I...that is to say, I haven't...well...
Suffice to say, I haven't thought about sex for at least three hours. So there.
I believe you're referring to Lilith.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>Through various tranlastions the bible may lost its onriginal meanings andd such. The translator could manipulate the wording until it means something completly different from what the original author might have meant. Also the Chruch has manipulated the bible to say what they want it to say especially in the Middle Ages. Since more than half than the population couldn't read maniplution would have been easy. It is proven that the Chruch removed Adam's first wife from the Bible because they condemed divorce. Adam scorned his first wife(don't remember her name its L something) in favor of Eve. She then turned into the serpent and you know the rest.</STRONG>
Thank you. I tried.Originally posted by Azeroth:
<STRONG>Well said Fable. See guys can go for a long time without thinking about sex *flips a page in playboy*</STRONG>
Ne? The book of John in my Bible was translated from Greek. I never said John was written in Hebrew. I said that Jesus spoke in Hebrew. It does not matter what the aramaic(or greek) for "father" was used in the example that Eminem used. You wanted to know becuase you wanted to know if that was a relevant example of God's gender. Though I do not know what Aramaic or Greek was used in John, I do know that at some point in the four gospels, Jesus spoke to God calling him "Abba," of which I have already mentioned the meaning a couple of times.Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>Eminem quoted the Gospel of John. Now, please correct me if I'm wrong, but I was under the impression that the Khabouris Manuscript, which is frequently used for first generation translations of this gospel in recent times, was written in Aramaic. Others claim (perhaps rightly) that John was spoken in Aramaic (since that would have been the language of Jesus in his place and time), then transcribed in Greek, and translated into Aramaic. In either case, I haven't seen any references to Hebrew as the language of the so-called fourth gospel.</STRONG>
