Let me go through this step by step, so that there is no room for mis-understanding (or double-think, for that matter).
Originally posted by mediev
His "initial ideas" were to protect the propertied classes--at the expense of democracy.
"At the expense of democracy." Hmmm. I question what your idea of democracy is. In my view, democracy is simply a free and representative government. I am in favor of democracy, and to the extent that Madison may have wished to deny democracy, I would oppose his view. However, I do not view protecting property rights as inherently opposed to democracy.
Originally posted by mediev
The main issue is that madison was precapitalist--and more anticapitalist than anything. His idea that the rich would act as "benevolent philosophers" and "enlightened statesmen" who would "dedicate themselves to the welfare of all" is an obviously precapitalist concept; it's what corporate tyrants try to force the population to believe, but only the most dedicated and indoctrinated commissar actually believes the wealthy are the "more capable set of men".
I have no idea what your terms "precapitalist" and "anticapitalist" mean. Madison's hope for the wealthy being benevolent and dedicating themselves to the general welfare is beside the point. I don't care what the wealthy do with their money, as long as they are allowed to keep it. Whether or not the wealthy are a more "capable set of men" is also a beside the point. I don't care if they are capable or not. Their money is their own.
Originally posted by mediev
If you didn't catch it in my first post, Madison was extremely upset on the turnout of his conception, realizing that business leaders, given power, "overwhelmed government with their powers and combinations" and are "bribed by its largesses". When I say "utilizing for their own self-interest", I mean they used government to further their own economic, political, and social status in society; Madison thought this was deplorable."..
Again, to simply say that the rich "use" the government is an unanswerable assertion. Maybe they do. I would point out that my view of government would not allow for any such "use." If the government is limited to the extent I believe it should be, there can be no gain through such tactics. The government would simply not be a part of the economy.
Further, I would point out that you have implicitly indicated that the rich are swindlers, bribers, and crooks. If this is your view of human nature, then no amount of alteration to government will change the situation, and we will always be swindled, bribed, and stolen from by either the rich, or the poor, or the government, or whomever. I believe that people are capable of ethical action, when this is not the case, the law must step in and prosecute those would would flout it.
Originally posted by mediev
And just what "rights" are you speaking of, if not property rights? Why does the military, an instrument of ruling class repression, have to do with "protecting" these rights? Pardon my "out there" interpretation, but it's difficult to extract an actual meaning from a mass of doublethink.
Property rights are a primary of any civilized state. I have no idea where you get this military as "an instrument of the ruling class." I brought up the military only marginally in a post some time ago, and simply stated that it is a requirement of any nation in today's world. The military should be used for national defense, and protection of national borders. Do you disagree?
@Shadow Sandrock: Hi! Thanks for the back-up.
