Posted: Mon Sep 03, 2001 12:41 pm
Aah, I thought something like that...
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Or any subject for that matterPosted by Azeroth -
I don't consider my self to be an atheist, but rather, agnostic. I don't really care one way or the other. I just wish people would leave each other alone and let each individual develop his/her own thoughts on god.
'Pretty much. Why? What do you believe in?Originally posted by Azeroth:
<STRONG>@EMINEM You really believe everything that little book says don't you?</STRONG>
I believe Azeroth has already posted he is agnostic.Originally posted by EMINEM:
<STRONG>'Pretty much. Why? What do you believe in?
</STRONG>
To me, the interesting question (at this point) is what that "little book" really does say on the issue. Eminem's quoted Jesus as calling God "Father," but there's no followup on what the Aramaic word for "father" meant either literally, or in a cultural context.Originally posted by Azeroth:
<STRONG>@EMINEM You really believe everything that little book says don't you?</STRONG>
First, the New Testament was written in Greek, not aramaic. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew and some Aramaic.Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>I always understood that the Aramaic word translated as "father" (please excuse me; I don't have it handy at the moment) actually refered to "generative principle" rather than a different word which would be "father." Yes, I know the two are sometimes considered synonomous among humans, but that issue aside, I'm wondering if, when we're discussing a discorporate, universal being, equating this principle to "male" isn't extremely limiting.</STRONG>
Luke 23:34
<STRONG>Jesus said, "Father, forgive these people, becasue they don't know what they are doing."</STRONG>
I do not remember the exact location(I think it is in the first verse I quoted), but at some point in the Gospels, Jesus called God "abba" of which I believe is a very personal way of saying "father," and basically means that Jesus was saying something like "Daddy." If I'm a little off on what I'm saying, it's because it's been a few years since I learned this.Luke 23:46
<STRONG>Then Jesus shouted, "Father, I entrust my spirit into your hands!"</STRONG>
"... pulls out Hebrew and Greek Expository Dictionary..."Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>I always understood that the Aramaic word translated as "father" (please excuse me; I don't have it handy at the moment) actually refered to "generative principle" rather than a different word which would be "father." Yes, I know the two are sometimes considered synonomous among humans, but that issue aside, I'm wondering if, when we're discussing a discorporate, universal being, equating this principle to "male" isn't extremely limiting. @Eminem, you have considerable experience in reading and interpreting the bible. What *is* the word used for father, taking into account cultural context?
Can a discorporate universal being that informs everything be said to have genitals? And no, I'm not being facetious. Who are we to put limitations on something which is beyond imagination?
[ 09-03-2001: Message edited by: fable ]</STRONG>
That still doesn't say whether or not the ones referred to as Jesus' brothers were his mother's sons or not.Originally posted by fable:
<STRONG>To me, the interesting question (at this point) is what that "little book" really does say on the issue. Eminem's quoted Jesus as calling God "Father," but there's no followup on what the Aramaic word for "father" meant either literally, or in a cultural context.
It could mean exactly what Eminem has implied, by quoting Webster's--though I wonder about that: after all, isn't calling God "father" less about the sex of God, than about the male parent/child relationship as perceived at that time and place?
And does "Father" actually mean that? A lot of meaning is lost without context. Let me give an instance: on one list some time ago, a particularly rabid Pentacostal was endlessly baiting Roman Catholics, Lutherans and Eastern Orthodox with sleazy remarks made about Mary (Jesus' mother) "sleeping around." His point, under all the hatred, was that there are biblical references to Jesus' brothers, and not simply in a religious sense. This would appear to throw the matter of Mary's unwillingness to engage in sex after Jesus' birth, a tradition in both the Western and Eastern churches, out the window.
But in fact, to this day (and certainly as far back as three thousand years ago, based on contemporary documents), Semitic families were extended ones; and one's cousins were one's brothers and sisters, quite literally. Frequently, they lived under one roof, and in any case, this was a standard mode of address.
So that Jesus addressing others as "brothers" did not necessarily mean "the sons of my mother" but just as possibly "the sons of my uncles and aunts."
Context is important. And this applies to the word "Father," as well.</STRONG>
I don't think so. Translations into different languages will differ (slightly), and doctrinal biases by certain denominations may creep into their translations (The Jehovah's Witness' Bible is a good example), but if you go back to the original Greek manuscripts and work from there, you should be able to obtain the correct scriptural interpetation which the New Testament authors intended.Originally posted by Word:
<STRONG>Through various tranlastions the bible may lost its onriginal meanings andd such. The translator could manipulate the wording until it means something completly different from what the original author might have meant. Also the Chruch has manipulated the bible to say what they want it to say especially in the Middle Ages. Since more than half than the population couldn't read maniplution would have been easy. It is proven that the Chruch removed Adam's first wife from the Bible because they condemed divorce. Adam scorned his first wife(don't remember her name its L something) in favor of Eve. She then turned into the serpent and you know the rest.</STRONG>