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Old 11-04-2007, 04:08 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Varlon View Post
I mean, seriously, you think that all knights and peasants were celibate and never forced someone to have sex with them? Are you kidding, the dark ages was the most gruesome time in regards of violence (if you were strong you could do whatever you wanted basically), disregarding women, etc.
Not the "Dark Ages" I've read about in any history book. (Though I"ll grant that the period in KievRus was a lot worse than probably 99% of what was going on elsewhere in Europe.) There were what we would consider horrendous crimes, but nothing that remains atypical today outside a very countries, and was completely typical in the 19th century. On the other hand, rule-by-force was not the standard. The Middle Ages was a time of social flux and experimentation. The vaunted European Renaissance was a period of stratifaction, with all resources being increasingly allocated to a a burgeoning middle class and a very few at the top.

Quote:
These times were very different as portrayed by the Arthurian saga or Tolkien. Ultimately, the question is: should you blame the witcher for using sex, violence, cursing, when others do not; or should you blame the knight novels for being too unrealistic.
The people who made The Witcher didn't have to include a lot of anachronisms. Nobody said it was required if they meant to ostensibly follow the novels. They could have repaired the anachronisms and used their PR to boast about being "true to the period."
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